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Old 06-26-2009, 08:40 AM   #206 (permalink)
Cretaceous Bob
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Join Date: Oct 2007
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Cretaceous Bob View Post
Here, I'll break it down for you:

1) In pirating, someone who has not acquired the artist's consent is receiving his art.

2) In copying a purchased CD, someone who has acquired the artist's consent to acquire the art itself is making a copy of that art for personal use. In this scenario, and in this scenario only, do your arguments about the worth of a digital copy apply. You seem to be confused between theft as a whole and larceny. Theft of a digital entity can only be through taking art; it is never larceny to steal a digital thing. The instant those MP3s appear on a file-sharing network, though, that person has committed theft.
Since you appear to be colossally stupid, let me make this even simpler:

CASE 1: SOMEONE WHO HAS NO RIGHT TO HAVE ART GETS ART

CASE 2: SOMEONE WHO HAS RIGHT TO HAVE ART GETS ART

That's the difference. And, as you have pointed out so much over the course of this thread, it is not possible to charge someone with larceny of an MP3.
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